This
is a continuation of my comments and observations on the Gospel of Mark in a
discussion at the Goodreads book club, Catholic Thought. Part I can be found here.
Part
I focused on the primacy of Mark’s or Matthew’s Gsopels. Part II focuses on modern scholarship and the
dating of the Gospels.
⁑
Irene
wrote: "Many of them are Catholic scholars who are very faith filled, even
priests and bishops. Let's not denigrate these modern scholars by calling their
faith into question. WE need to keep this conversation..."
Manny:
I'm
not against anyone, believer or not, putting their opinions into the mix. But
it can make a substantial difference in the way they read the texts. It comes
down to the assumptions. A believer comes with different assumptions to the
Gospels that a non-believer does.
Here's
an example that happened to me while I was discussing that Canaanite Woman
scene with someone who's forum nickname (this was not on Goodreads) is
Manichean. I don't know if he's a believer or not, but the Manicheans were
heretics, so we know his sympathies are not traditional. His claim was that
Christ after calling the woman a dog and seeing her faith learned not to be
prejudiced. Let me repeat that: Christ learned not to be a racist.
If
you do not assume that Christ is God and all-knowing and sinless, then Manichean's
reading is perfectly logical. Manichean's assumption is that Jesus is an
ordinary man. But because we know that Christ knows how the woman will react
and knows her heart and that Christ a priori cannot sin, then his reading is
actually ludicrous.
Now
if you believe that Matthew took from the Mark initial Gospel writing, then how
did he rewrite the stories with additional information? He either had different
information or he lied. Can a Gospel writer lie? A non-believer would say that
is open to that assumption, and therefore he might see Mark as the first
Gospel. A believer would say that for Matthew to lie is impossible because he
is being guided by the Holy Spirit.
My
point is assumptions are different for a believer and non-believer and they can
radically shape the reading.
By
the way, I still maintain that none of the synoptic Gospel writers were aware
of each other's texts and that overlapping scenes are from scraps of texts that
floated around from which they happen come across if they had the story and
didn't if they didn't come across. Now I'm no scholar and I've never heard
anyone put out this theory, so take it with a grain of salt.
⁑
Yikes,
there's a ton to respond to and I probably won't get to it all. Let me address
this that Irene stated:
"What
I was reacting to was the claim that most who believe that Mark is the first
Gospel to be written were secular scholars, those outside the faith."
I
don't think I said that and if I implied it, it was not my intention. I fully
acknowledge that Mark having primacy is the consensus opinion among scholars
today, both within Catholicism and without. I admit, I am arguing counter to
the conventional opinion.
To
Francis: Yes, apparently Bishop Barron supports the consensus opinion.
To
Susan: Thank you for pointing out no one was being disrespectful. I don't see
my comments or anyone else’s as disrespectful.
To
Kerstin: I agree, the Synoptic problem will never be fully answered. There are
holes in all the established theories, including the one I've been pointing
out.
With
that I want to remind everyone of Joseph's comment, #45. Joseph is a seminary
student in college right now. Here's his entire quote:
"I'm
just going to jump in that this is hotly debated among professional scripture
scholars. There are representatives of both schools at the seminary where I
study and we won't know for sure which theory is right until we can ask the
Evangelists themselves "So which of you wrote first?"
That
is to say that while Mark may be the consensus opinion, it is not absolute.
Frankly consensus opinions about ancient texts, not just Christian texts, have
the half-life of an gnat's lifespan. Mark may be the consensus now, but in
fifty years it's quite possible, if not probable, the "scholars" will
move on to another opinion, maybe even go back to the opinion the Catholic
Church had for almost two thousand years.
I
did a search for those who support Matthew as primacy and found Taylor Marshall does:
I
don't know who Christopher Fischer is, but he goes through the history as to
why the Catholic Church chose Matthew as first and why he believes it is the
first. It's a great read, here:
Let
me just conclude, the reason the Catholic Church has long held that Matthew was
first was because several of the Church Fathers claimed it, and they further
claim that Matthew originally wrote his Gospel in Hebrew and was later
translated to Greek. Rhetorically it just seems to me that Mark is condensing
Matthew, not Matthew elaborating on Mark.
⁑
Irene
in her last comment above brought out the issue of dating the Gospels. Modern
scholars have dated all the Gospels to be post destruction of the Temple which
occurred in 70 AD. As far as I can see the sole reason is that Jesus predicts
the destruction of the Temple, and so the modernist assumption is that the
Gospel writers had to wait until the destruction of the Temple in order to
write in a prediction. Again this goes back to the assumptions. If Christ is
truly God, then He should have been able to predict the future coming of the
Temple's destruction.
In
my research over this, I found the Catholic Church traditionally maintained
that Matthew was written somewhere between 40-45 AD, not post Temple
destruction, and that Matthew was originally written in Hebrew or Aramaic (I
had never known this, and my next reading of Matthew in its entirety I'm going
to look for echoes that have been pointed out) and that Mark followed Matthew, which
completely jives with the rhetorical constructions I'm seeing in Mark during
this current read. Catholic Answers has a great layout of the traditional
Catholic understanding of when and how the Gospels were written. It really
behooves a close reading of it, here:
I
think everyone should ask themselves this: If you support the dating of the
Gospels to post Temple destruction, why are you doing so? If you are accepting
the reason that the Gospel writers could not have known of the Temple's
destruction until it happened, then you are unconsciously supporting the
secularization of Jesus Christ.
⁑
Thanks
Irene. I'll have to look into those language and cultural nuances that could
effect dating. Dating by the Temple destruction is certainly not nuanced and so
it’s a vivid mile marker, but perhaps there are more subtle methods that have
gone on. I guess I've been scarred by post-modernist scholars when it comes to
literature. I have a masters in English Literature and my engaging with
professors and articles during school was definitely forming. The scholarship
across the university system is so biased against western tradition and
religion I learned that once you probe their assumptions, most of their
arguments start falling apart. This is especially true with the post-modernist
critics who have it as a mission to deconstruct - and by implication destroy
established western norms and traditions, whether by intent or by following
"the consensus." I've learned that consensus in scholarship means
little to me.
As
to theology, I've found this fantastic article on Crux, a Catholic online
magazine, about how a current crop Catholic theologians - Scott Hahn, Brad
Pitre, others - who are now "correcting" (I would have used the word,
revising) the modernist scholars of this century. Like I said,
"consensus" in ancient texts has a half-life of a gnat's life.
Definitely another excellent read:
By
the way, Brad Pitre is excellent. I read his Jewish Roots of the Eucharist and
it's a wonderful read. Highly recommend it. Also, his new book "The Case
for Jesus: The Biblical and Historical Evidence for Christ" is on sale at
Kindle for $1.99. I just bought it yesterday. It got a great write-up
somewhere. I don't know how long it will stay at that price. Here:
Here's
the concluding paragraph in the Crux article:
"Put
simply, the skepticism of Bultmann, Borg, Crossan and Ehrman is out of date.
New discoveries have pushed scholarship beyond their fanciful theories and
dubious conclusions. The new wave of New Testament scholars readily accept the
positive findings of a century’s worth of research, but in the spirit of true
scholarship, they have also learned how to be critical of the critics."
So
just because I'm in a minority voice, don't think that what I'm arguing is far
afield. It's just not with the consensus.
⁑
Let
me counter with two points. (1) The Catholic Church has always considered both
Matthew to be first and Mark to have learned at the feet of Peter. There is
nothing mutually exclusive about that. (2) We have all been formed by the
modern scholar's timeline of the Gospel's all being post fall of the Temple. As
far as I know the only reason for that is that Jesus predicts the fall of the
Temple, and so the Gospels have to be after that. Well that's bogus if Christ
is God because obviously God can know the future. (Irene above has argued it is
more than just the fall of the Temple dating, but until I read that and am
convinced, I'm sticking to the modern scholar's lack of faith in Christ.)
Historically the Catholic Church argued that Matthew was written in in the
early 40's, which would leave a good 25 years for Mark to then work with Peter
to write his Gospel.
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